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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 24.06.2025 06:56

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

I'm very sick. 72 years old. I thinking I'm losing my mind. My dead friend told me it's going to be okay. I could feel him. There is more…I don't know what but more.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.